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Old 11-12-2009, 07:44 PM   #1 (permalink)
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How does it work?

If a run scores and that baserunner was on base due to an error by the pitcher, is it an earned run? I ask because this happened to me and I want to be sure.
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Old 11-12-2009, 08:09 PM   #2 (permalink)
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Here are the relevant clauses from the Major League Baseball rules:

10.16 Earned Runs And Runs Allowed

(b) No run shall be earned when scored by a runner who reaches first base

(3) because of any fielding error.


(e) An error by a pitcher is treated exactly the same as an error by any other fielder in computing earned runs.
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Old 11-12-2009, 10:42 PM   #3 (permalink)
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personally it think pitchers should be charged an earned run for home runs even if an error would make it unearned.
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Old 11-13-2009, 09:06 AM   #4 (permalink)
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Quote:
Originally Posted by jmolony3 View Post
personally it think pitchers should be charged an earned run for home runs even if an error would make it unearned.
Wouldn't the home run be earned as it was scored by a batter who hadn't reached first base.
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Old 11-13-2009, 09:18 AM   #5 (permalink)
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How does anybody score without reaching first base?
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Old 11-13-2009, 01:23 PM   #6 (permalink)
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Keep in mind that if an error occurs on what would've been the 3rd out, all runs after that are Unearned. That holds true until there's a pitching change in that inning.

A Home Run will tag the Pitcher with an Earned Run, except when hit after an error that would'be been the 3rd out.

Example with 2 Outs:

A) Batter reaches on a fielding error.
B) Pitches walks next batter, so now runners on 1st and 2nd.
C) Batter hits a 3 Run Home Run.

In this case, the Pitcher isn't charged any Earned Runs because the batter in step A would have been the 3rd out. If there had been 1 Out when step A occured, then the Pitcher would be charged 2 Earned Runs... 1 for the Walked Batter in B and 1 for the Home Run Hitter in C.

Last edited by Gern44; 11-13-2009 at 01:30 PM. Reason: Edited for spelling.
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Old 11-13-2009, 04:12 PM   #7 (permalink)
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Along the same lines, I've always wondered about the following situation.

Pitcher gives up a double leaving a runner on second with no outs, then is taken out of the game. Next pitcher comes in and the outfielder flubs a play. The runner on second scores on the error, but the pitcher strikes out the next three batters.

Is it an earned run against the first pitcher?
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Old 11-13-2009, 05:17 PM   #8 (permalink)
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I believe technically it's up to the official scorer judgement in a case like that. If he believes the runner would have scored on the play even if the error hadn't been committed, it would be an earned run. If the run scored directly because of the error, obviously it's an unearned run. If the run scored because of the error but then the next three batters all get on base the runner on second would have scored eventually, therefore it would be an earned run as well.

I'm pretty sure thats how it all works out.

How OOTP handles it, I havn't the slightest idea. Sounds like a pain to program.
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