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Old 02-20-2010, 07:41 AM   #1 (permalink)
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Free agency question (why did this happen??!)

Ok, maybe I got ahead of myself in thinking too much about the programming inside of this game but here goes:

Offseason after the 2009 season and the Blue Jays (me) are very close to signing Rich Harden who is taking his sweet old time to sign. He keeps picking me then asking for more money over and over again. Finally I get to a point where I feel as though I don't want to go any higher on my offer and I sit. Finally, I get another message that another team has outbid me, the SF Giants.

I decide to go and check the Giants financial situation (should I even be able to do this?) and it says they only have like 1.3M to sign free agents. I'm offering 9.5M so I start to think, "hey, he's pulling my chain. There's no way the Giants are offering him anything close." I decide to call his bluff.

2 days later, Harden signs with the Giants for about 9.65M per year.

How???!!?!?!
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Old 02-20-2010, 07:47 AM   #2 (permalink)
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If you're in the lead for someone, doesn't your offer count against your money for FA? If yes, and the AI was in the lead then that's how it got Harden.
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Old 02-20-2010, 07:53 AM   #3 (permalink)
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I believe this is true otherwise you could make multiple FA offers and if they all agreed you would be in an over-budget situation.

I have gotten a message before that I couldn't offer a player a contract because I didn't have the money only to have another player who I bid on sign elsewhere which freed up money to go back and make the offer.
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