Shouldn't one of these been a earned run?

[DerekT]

I played a game where the pitcher had a complete game with 3 unearned runs. I thought one of them should of been earned. All runs were scored in the 8th inning.

With runners on first and second, 0 outs the batter hits a ball to the 3rd baseman that gets through for an error scoring one runner (this was the only error of the game). Runners now on second and third.

Next batter flys out scoring the runner from third and moving the other runner to 3rd base.

Next batter grounds out scoring the runner from third. There is then a walk and fly out to end the inning.

Assuming that the scorer said the error would of been a double play and the next batter fly out would of ended the inning, isn't the first run still earned?

[dumrox]

If the scorer is to recreate the inning as if the error hadn't occurred, in your scenario wouldn't the double play have resulted in runner on 3rd, two out and next batter ends the inning with no run having scored?

Does the official scorer assume double plays? What if the scorer ruled the play that resulted in the error would have simply been a force at 3rd. Now, runners on 1st and 2nd, one out. Next batter flies out, runner advances to 3rd, two outs. Then, ground out ends the inning.

[Cryomaniac]

Originally Posted by dumrox

If the scorer is to recreate the inning as if the error hadn't occurred, in your scenario wouldn't the double play have resulted in runner on 3rd, two out and next batter ends the inning with no run having scored?

Does the official scorer assume double plays? What if the scorer ruled the play that resulted in the error would have simply been a force at 3rd. Now, runners on 1st and 2nd, one out. Next batter flies out, runner advances to 3rd, two outs. Then, ground out ends the inning.

I think I remember an announcer (Probably Jon Miller) saying that the scorer doesn't assume double plays. Obviously he might have been wrong.

[RchW]

Originally Posted by Cryomaniac

I think I remember an announcer (Probably Jon Miller) saying that the scorer doesn't assume double plays. Obviously he might have been wrong.

My understanding is that a double play is never assumed. When you see a double play botched up it is always ruled a fielders choice. Now if it gets botched up such that a runner or the batter gets an extra base, an error can be given to explain that advance.

Edit

In the case above the error allowed the the advance of an extra base 2nd to home, hence the run is unearned. The only outs that could be assumed were a force at third a force at 2nd or the batter out at 1st.

[big freddy]

Originally Posted by DerekT

I played a game where the pitcher had a complete game with 3 unearned runs. I thought one of them should of been earned. All runs were scored in the 8th inning.

With runners on first and second, 0 outs the batter hits a ball to the 3rd baseman that gets through for an error scoring one runner (this was the only error of the game). Runners now on second and third.

Next batter flys out scoring the runner from third and moving the other runner to 3rd base.

Next batter grounds out scoring the runner from third. There is then a walk and fly out to end the inning.

Assuming that the scorer said the error would of been a double play and the next batter fly out would of ended the inning, isn't the first run still earned?

As a former scorer. One run could have been earned. You can't assume the DP, but you could assume that the 3rd basemen gets the force at 3rd, thus making it runners at 1st and 2nd with 1 out. The fly ball moves the runner to 3rd putting runners at the corners with 2 outs. The ground out ends the inning thus having 0 earned runs. He could have one if you assume he gets the force at 2nd.